What did Paul say...how did he say...? ——Rethinking Paul’s Language Training

　　In a recent article on Hellenism, Graham Stanton, a famous New Testament scholar, talks about the language training of Paul with the following conclusion: “Greek was probably Paul’s first language, with fluency in Aramaic and Hebrew being attained during his education in Palestine. He was exposed to Greek institutions from birth and knew enough Greek poetry to quote it on occasion (Acts 17:28; 1 Cor 15:33; Tit 1:12).” ¹ What is the “first language” to which Stanton refers? Does he mean Paul’s mother tongue or Paul’s “first written language”? From the context, Stanton seems to refer to Paul’s mother tongue, for he holds that Paul was educated in Palestine where he learned the Jews’ traditional languages: Aramaic and Hebrew.

　　It is true that according to what is written in the New Testament, though limited, Paul was without doubt bilingual, that is, he could speak fluent Hellenistic Greek and Hebrew (see Acts 9:29, 17:22-33, 21:37: Hellenistic Greek-speaking; Acts 21:40, 22:2, 26:14: Hebrew-speaking or understanding spoken Hebrew). However, records that directly speak about Paul’s mother tongue or “first language” are few, and so it is hard to affirm the argument of which Stanton seems so certain. In fact, the limited resources available seem to support the opposite argument.

　　In Philippians 3:5, Paul “under an inevitable circumstance” boasts, “circumcised on the eighth day, of the people of Israel, of the tribe of Benjamin, a Hebrew of Hebrews….” Here, the phrase “a Hebrew of Hebrews” （Hebraios ex Hebraiōn） literally seems to mean “a Hebrew of pure descent,” ² but is this explanation appropriate? In what immediately precedes this phrase, Paul underlines the fact that he has been “circumcised on the eighth day” and “of the people of Israel, of the tribe of Benjamin.” Aren’t these words enough to point out explicitly that he is “a Hebrew of pure descent”? Then, why does he specifically emphasize that he is “a Hebrew of pure descent”?

　　The word Hebraios (Hebrew) in the Greek Old Testament often refers to an Israelite (see Gen.39:14, 17; Exod. 1:15,22; Deut. 15:12, I Sam. 4:6, 13:19; Septuagint Jeremiah 41:9, 14). ³ But in the New Testament, it seems to have a different usage or meaning. Besides here, this word also appears in 2 Corinthians 11:22 and Acts 6:1. In 2 Corinthians 11:22, Paul emphatically says that those whom he considered to be false apostles boasted of being Hebrews, regarding themselves to be superior to Paul. In fact, Paul was also a Hebrew, just as they. Besides pointing out that he was a Hebraios, Paul goes on immediately to highlight that he likewise is an Israēlitēs and of the tribe of Benjamin, that is, a descendant of Abraham. Here Paul puts together three identities: a Hebrew, an Israelite and a descendent of Abraham and put them side by side; if the word Hebraios means Israēlitēs as we find in the Old Testament, then these three identities are synonyms or homonyms. This way of expression is not uncommon in Paul’s letters (see Rom.5:15-19, 7:14-23); it serves to describe the fact of Paul’s Jewish identity⁴ from different angles so as to accentuate its importance. Since this identity is seen “from different angles,” the word Hebraios seems to have a somewhat different connotation from the other two. It is therefore important to determine what Paul means when he uses the term Hebraios

　　In Acts 6:1, the word Hebraios stands in contrast to the word Hellēnistēs; the latter does not appear in the Greek Old Testament, but only in the New Testament, referring to Hellenised Jews (see NIV) or “those Jews who speak Greek” (see Acts 9:29, 11:20). Therefore, Hebraios is likely to mean “those deeply nurtured by the Hebrew culture,” or “those Hebrew-speaking people,” or even “those who can worship in Hebrew” (see NIV). ⁵

　　However, when Paul used the term Hebraios, does he express the same meaning as did Luke in Acts? From common sense logic, the way Luke uses the word ought not to be different from the way it was used among the Jews or ordinary people in the first century. Otherwise, Luke’s readers would not understand what it meant. If this logic is valid, Paul’s use of the term must be somewhat the same as Luke’s use. Therefore, when Paul used the word in 2 Corinthians 11:22, it is probable that he wanted to emphasize that he and those “false apostles” had the same cultural background, that is, they had the same language, faith and customs. Not only did they have the same Jewish faith and daily customs but they also could speak Hebrew, the native language of the Jews. ⁶

　　If this understanding of the text holds true, then the phrase “a Hebrew of Hebrews” in Philippians 3:5 is intended to emphasize that not only Paul but also his parents could speak Hebrew and even worship in Hebrew; ⁷ in other words, it not only highlights the cultural elements that influenced the thought of Paul, but also pointed out that Hebrew was the first language Paul learned ever since he was born a Hebrew. ⁸ Yet, in the first century, the Hebrew language to which Paul referred here was Aramaic and not Hebrew, the ancient language of the Israelites. ⁹

　　If this was the case, how could Paul understand Hebrew, the Israelites’ ancient language? To answer this question, perhaps we must begin with the way Paul quotes Old Testament scriptures.

　　In Romans 5:19, Paul asserts, “For just as through the disobedience of one man the many were made sinners, so also through the obedience of the one man the many will be made righteous.” In my view, this assertion alludes to the Old Testament: Isaiah 53:11.

　　Let us compare the word of Paul and that of Isaiah.

　　In Romans 10:16 and 15:21, Paul explicitly quotes from Isaiah 53:1 and 52:15. This shows that when Paul wrote this letter, he was influenced by the Fourth Servant’s Song in the Book of Isaiah (i.e., 52:13 – 53:12). Furthermore, Paul explicitly quotes from Isaiah 52:5, 7 in Romans 2:24 and 10:15 respectively; this proves that Paul knows well the broad context of this Servant’s Song and so it further supports the argument we have made above as to the relationship between Romans 5:19 and the Book of Isaiah. Therefore, we have every reason to believe that when Paul wrote this letter, the Servant’s Song in Isaiah had definitely had an impact on him.

　　When we carefully compare the wording and content of these texts, we see the relationship between Romans 5:19 and Isaiah 53:11 seems to be based on the Hebrew version of the Book of Isaiah instead of the Greek version. The meaning of dikaiōsai dikaion eu douleuonta pollois (to justify the just one who serves many well) in Septuagint is inexplicable. Put literally, it means “to proclaim righteous that servant who serves many well.” ¹¹ Who in fact is this righteous one? According to the context of the Servant’s Song, it is highly probable that this righteous one is the one to which Isaiah refers, namely, the mysterious servant whom Yahweh has chosen. The translation of Septuagint seems to imply that this righteous one will ultimately be declare righteous or justified. We are not sure whether the translation of Septuagint is based on a Hebrew version which was different from the Masoretic text or whether it came from the translator’s interpretation of the Hebrew version of the text available to him. Whichever that may be, it is clear that the meaning of Isaiah 53:11 in Septuagint is different from the Hebrew version.

　　It is commonly acknowledged that the Hebrew version of Isaiah 53:11 is one of the biblical passages that are most difficult to interpret. We would confine our discussion to verse 11aβ ¹² of Isaiah 53 only. Traditionally, many commentators hold that many will be made righteous by what the righteous servant does or what he has gone through (see NIV, NRSV. REB, GNB/TEV). However, some scholars disagree; according to them, this sentence should be translated as: “My servant will show himself to be righteous … [and so stand] as righteous before many.” ¹³ This implies that the one who will ultimately be justified or restored by Yahweh is the servant of Yahweh. They base the translation and interpretation of this sentence on three grammatical grounds. First, the stem of the verb yṣdq (“to be righteous”) should be an internal Hiphil, expressing an internal causative sense; ¹⁴ Second, the adjective “righteous” has been accidentally repeated or erroneously placed there, or even mispointed by a scribe or copyist. ¹⁵ Thirdly, lrbym should be understood as “in the presence of many or in the face of many people.”

　　However, these three reasons are not as reliable as they think. In my opinion, the key to uncovering the meaning of Isaiah 53:11aβ is to find out the function of the adjective “righteous” and the preposition l^e that they serve here. As opposed to many Old Testament scholars, I do not believe that the adjective “righteous” is the result of an accidental repetition, a misplacement, or even a mispointed word, but rather that it is a substantival adjective used as the subject of this clause. The fact that this adjectival noun carries no article does not verify that it cannot be the subject of this clause. According to Hebrew grammar, in poetry or narrative genre, a definite article is often not used, or in situations when it should be used, it is in fact not used. ¹⁶ Here, the adjective “righteous” is used as a subject that constitutes an appositional relation to “my servant,” ¹⁷ meaning “the righteous one, my servant.”

　　As for the function of l^e, which has been incorrectly taken as a preposition by many scholars, it simply serves as an object marker. ¹⁸ To take it as an object marker helps affirm the Hiphil function of the verb “make righteous:” the Hiphil stem expresses a causative sense. Summing up the functions of the adjective “righteous” and l^e, we can translate Isaiah 53:11aβ as follows: “The righteous one, my servant, shall make many righteous.” This translation and interpretation is consistent with the traditional interpretation, and is more preferable as it is in accord with the Hebrew syntax. Furthermore, there is no need to change the present text nor to assert that a mistake was made in copying the text. Therefore we can conclude that this is the most natural interpretation of Isaiah 53:11aβ.

　　In Romans 5:19b, we can find the New Testament version of Isaiah 53:11aβ. Here, Paul explicitly points out that through the obedience of one man (Jesus), many will be made righteous （katastathēsontai）. ¹⁹ The implication of Paul and that of the prophet Isaiah is entirely consistent. Throughout the entire Old Testament, there is no other place that expresses such a distinct idea as that of Isaiah 53:11: the suffering, righteous act and death of the righteous one or an innocent person enable other people to be made righteous. Therefore, we have good reason to believe that Paul was not only influenced by the word of the prophet Isaiah²⁰ but he also drew his inspiration from the Hebrew version of the book of Isaiah. If the explanation above on Isaiah 53:11 is correct, then we can say with certainty that Paul had a fairly high level of understanding of Hebrew and that he knew the Hebrew classic writings and their underlying theological implications.

　　There is no clear and forceful evidence for us to make an explicit deduction as to when Paul learned the language and the Hebrew writing. It is true that the Jewish settlement in the Diaspora in general used Hellenistic Greek; ²¹ however, Hebrew had not totally vanished in the Jewish circle outside Palestine, though such kind of evidence is rather meagre. ²² Besides, as Paul’s parents sent him back to Jerusalem to study the law and the tradition of their Jewish ancestors (see Acts 22:3), they might also have let Paul study the language of their ancestors early in his life.

　　Whatever the truth may be about Paul’s knowledge of Hebrew, if the above mentioned arguments can stimulate us to reconsider the language training of this great apostle to the Gentile, then the anticipated purpose of this essay has been fulfilled.

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¹ See G. Stanton, “Hellenism,” in Dictionary of New Testament Background, ed. C. A. Evans and S. E. Porter (Downers Grove: IVP, 2000), 472.
² For example, G. D. Fee, The Epistle to the Philippians (Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 1995,) 307.
³ See Colin Brown, ed., New International Dictionary of NT Theology (Grand Rapids: Zondervan, 1976), 2:305-306. In Num.24:24 in the Septuagint, Hebraios is used of Hebrews, while the Hebrew term ‘vr that it translates refers to Eber, not Hebrews or Israelites.
⁴ See M. E. Thrall, 2 Corinthians, ICC (Edinburgh: T & T Clark, 2000), 729.
⁵ See D. J. Williams, Acts, GNC (San Francisco: Harper & Row, 1985), 102; E. W. Wall, “The Acts of the Apostles,” in The New Interpreter’s Bible, ed. L. E. Keck, vol. X (Nashville: Abingdon, 2002), 111-112; C. K. Barrett, The Acts of the Apostles, ICC (Edinburgh: T & T Clark, 1994), 1:308-309; L. T. Johnson, The Acts of the Apostles, SP (Collegeville: Liturgical Press, 1992), 105; D. L. Bock, Acts, BECNT (Grand Rapids: Baker, 2007), 258.
⁶ See NIDNTT,2:310; Thrall, 2 Corinthians, 730; D. E. Garland, 2 Corinthians, NAC (Nashville: Broadman & Holman, 1999), 494; M. J. Harris, The Second Epistle to the Corinthians (Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 2005), 794-795.
⁷ Those who support this view include: P. O’Brien, The Epistle to the Philippians, NIGTC (Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 1991), 371-372; J. B. Polhill, Paul and His Letters (Nashville: Broadman & Holman, 2004), 26.
⁸ See F. F. Bruce, Philippians, GNC (San Francisco: Harper & Row, 1983), 83.
⁹ See E. Schürer, The History of the Jewish People in the Time of Jesus Christ, II, rev. and ed. G. Vermes (Edinburgh: T & T Clark, 1979), 20, 28.
¹⁰ This is the English translation of the Septuagint, taken from L. C. L. Brenton, The Septuagint with Apocrypha: Greek and English (Peabody: Hendrickson, 1986).
¹¹ L. T. Johnson, Reading Romans: A Literary and Theological Commentary (New York: Crossroad, 1997), 162 expounds the meaning of Isaiah 5:19, “In Rom.5:19, … the statement, ‘ the obedience of one man will establish many as righteous’ appears to be a clear allusion to LXX Isa.53:11, ‘the righteous one who is serving well will make many righteous.’” I am not certain whether Johnson based his translation on Hellenistic version compiled by A. Rahlf or that of J. Ziegler. Whatever that may be, but grammatically speaking, his translation cannot be valid. Syntactically, dikaiōsai (to justify) is meant to modify bouletai (is pleased) in 53:10c; hence, dikaion (justified one) is used as an object rather than the subject of dikaiōsai (to justify). Besides, pollois cannot be the object of dikaiōsai but its subject, because all that appears after the verb douleuō (serve) will have to take the dative case.
¹² That is “the righteous one, my servant, shall make many righteous.”
¹³ See S. Mowinckel, He That Cometh (Oxford: Basil Blackwell, 1956), 199, n. 8, quoting C. Westermann, Isaiah 40-66, OTL (Philadelphia: Westminster, 1969), 267.
¹⁴ Regarding the meaning and function of internal causative of Hiphil, see B. Waltke and M. O’Connor, An Introduction to Biblical Hebrew Syntax (Winona Lake: Eisenbrauns, 1990), 439-441, §§27.2f & g; GKC, 145, §53d. Besides Mowinckel and Westermann, Whybray and Hüller also understand the meaning of the Hiphil of this verb in the same way. See R. N. Whybray, Isaiah 40-66, NCBC (Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 1981), 181; H. P. Hüller, “Ein Vorschlag zu Jes 53,10f.” ZAW 81 (1969): 380.
¹⁵ Whybray sees that both are probable while Hüller took dwq and read it as yṣdyq (Qal infinitive absolute) rather than ṣdyq, see Whybray, Isaiah 40-66, 180; Hüller, “Ein Vorschlag,” 380.
¹⁶ Waltke and O’Connor, An Introduction to Biblical Hebrew Syntax, 250, §13.7a, and see also the examples supplied there.
¹⁷ See Waltke and O’Connor, An Introduction to Biblical Hebrew Syntax, 262, §14.3.3c.
¹⁸ See Waltke and O’Connor, An Introduction to Biblical Hebrew Syntax, 210, §11.2.10g.
¹⁹ Here katastathēsontai (the future tense and passive form of kathistēmi) may not be different from ginomai, see W. Bauer, A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature, rev. and ed. F. W. Danker (Chicago: Chicago University Press, 2000), 492, s.v. “kaqi,sthmi”; A. Oepke, Theological Dictionary of the New Testament, trans. G. W. Bromiley (Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 1965), 3:445, s.v. “kathistēmi.”
²⁰ Regarding how the word of Isaiah affected the thought of Paul, my work Paul’s Use of Isaiah in Romans: A Comparative Study of Paul’s Letter to the Romans and the Sibylline and Qumran Sectarian Texts, WUNT 2.156 (Tübingen: J.C.B. Mohr Siebeck, 2002), 199-200 had a detail discussion.
²¹ See V. Tcherikover, Hellenistic Civilization and the Jews (Peabody: Hendrickson, 1999), 347-348; E. Shürer, The History of the Jewish People in the Time of Jesus Christ, III.1, rev. and ed. G. Vermes (Edinburgh: T & T Clark, 1986), 142-143.
²² See Tcherikover, Hellenistic Civilization and the Jews, 347.